The Two Bodies of Philippians 3:20-21

An Easy & Clear Refutation of Full Preterism

Full preterists teach that Jesus Christ returned in His Second Coming in AD 70 when the Romans surrounded Jerusalem and then destroyed both the city and the Temple. Their emphasis is to take the "time statements" of the New Testament literally and then interpret every single other New Testament passage through that lens. This inevitably results in the twisting of other plain scriptures and ends up undermining (often unknowingly to them) the very foundational doctrines of Christian orthodoxy. In fact, it changes every single one of them. I was caught in this horrible doctrine for more than 15 years. But there was one question that kept bothering me. And when this question was finally emphasized and asked to me out loud, it saved me out of this mindset and literally saved my mind from its pollution. That question is now the first and only one that I ask every full preterist or those considering its doctrines:

Is Jesus Christ still a man?

The answer to this one question will destroy the very foundation of full preterism. If you answer "no" then you have not only contradicted scripture but also 2000 years of Christian orthodoxy and it proves you are not aware of the rich history of this question. If you answer "yes" then you cannot be a full preterist any longer.

The following is an actual dialog I had with a full preterist trying to deal with the Philippians 3:20-21 passage that absolutely demolishes the foundation of full preterism. Full preterism cannot handle Jesus Christ maintaining His eternal glorified immortal physical body He received at His resurrection. In attempts to maintain their doctrine they must have Jesus somehow sloughing off His physical body (thus making Him no longer a man) at His ascension. Why? Because their doctrine demands they must maintain Jesus' Second Coming occurred in AD 70 which, consequently, would require that Jesus return invisibly (i.e. not in a physical body), since, obviously, no one saw Him in bodily form at that time. Actually, no one saw Him at all, but that's another discussion.

The problem Philippians 3:20-21 presents to the full preterist is exemplified in the following dialog. The passage has two simultaneously existing bodies not lending itself for full preterist interpretation. The passage says:

"But our citizenship is in heaven, and from it we await a Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ, who will transform our lowly body to be like his glorious body, by the power that enables him even to subject all things to himself."

This transformation occurs at the Second Coming of Jesus Christ which the full preterist tries to maintain as having already occurred in AD 70. But there are two bodies simultaneously existing before the transformation, and two bodies simultaneously existing after the transformation. One body is not being transformed into the other as the full preterist tries to say, but rather the one is being transformed to be like the other.

Watch how the full preterist tries to progressively answer the issue. Here is the sequence of answers he gives after he notices the failure of his previous answer:

1. It is not a physical body; dismissal.
2. "His glorious body" is the redeemed church; New Jerusalem.
3. "Our lowly body" is the old body of Israel & it is being transformed into "His glorious body" (the Body of Christ)
4. The passage represents the alread-but-not-yet idea in the New Testament.
5. No response...

Again, each of his answers fail for the simple reason he does not see paul is not describing the transformation of one body into the other body but the transforming of the one body to be like the other body; two simultaneously existing bodies are maintained in the passage.

The real answer is very simple and falls out of the orthodox doctrine of Jesus Christ being eternally incarnate; a doctrine that has been affirmed by mainline Christianity (Catholic, Protestant, Eastern Orthodox) for 2000 years. This doctrine maintains that Jesus Christ is still a man of flesh, albeit that flesh is immortal & glorified. At the Second Coming of Jesus Christ, "our lowly body" (our physical mortal flesh) will be transformed to be like "His glorious body" (His physical glorified immortal flesh). That clearly did not happen in AD 70. Paul is speaking of the physical resurrection in our future. Our lives of death and resurrection are to follow the pattern set by our Savior. He lived for God; so should we. He physically died; so will we. He was physically resurrected; so will we be. He is a man forever; so will we be.

THE CONVERSATION:

ME: Jesus Christ is still a man; eternally incarnate. This one fact drew me out of 15+ years of full preterism and the dozens of books and hundreds of articles I'd read and studied during that time. This one fact destroys the entire foundation of full preterism. This one passage will defy every full preterist exegete: "But our citizenship is in heaven, and from it we await a Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ, who will transform our lowly body to be like his glorious body, by the power that enables him even to subject all things to himself." (Philippians 3:20-21). Let the ad hominem and tap dance begin...

FULL PRETERIST: Wrong body

ME: There are two bodies in the above passage:

1. His glorious body

2. Our lowly body 

Which one is the "wrong body"?

FULL PRETERIST: Your understanding of the nature. His glorious body is the redeemed church; the New Jerusalem.

ME: With that in mind, now read Philippians 3:20-21 again. Here, I'll help you...

"But our citizenship is in heaven and from it we await a Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ who will transform our lowly body to be like his [redeemed church; the New Jerusalem], by the power that enables him even to subject all things to himself."

How is "our lowly body" (which is the church) to be transformed into the redeemed church? In other words, how is it that Paul is saying that the church is being transformed into the church? 

FULL PRETERIST: My fault. I was not clear enough. The old body the body of Israel is transformed into the new body which is the body of Christ. Both are corporate. If it is to be understood individually then it is not for anyone today. And it only applied to first-century Saints. 

ME: So Paul and his fellow believers were not yet the body of Christ when he wrote this? Please show me in scripture where Paul tells his fellow believers that they are not yet part of the body of Christ. 

FULL PRETERIST: They were in the already not yet. 

ME: Since when is the body of Christ called a "lowly body"? And regarding the "already not yet", make that fit in the passage please. Here, I'll help you again... 

"But our citizenship is in heaven and from it we await a Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ who will transform our [currently existing] lowly [not yet] body to be like his [currently existing] glorious [already] body by the power that enables him even to subject all things to himself." 

Do you still not see it? There are two simultaneously existing bodies when Paul wrote this before AD 70. One already exists on earth (the lowly body) and one simultaneously exists in heaven (Jesus' glorious body). The two bodies coexist when Paul wrote. But the lowly will be transformed into a body just like the glorious body (Jesus') that already exists as Paul wrote. One is not being transformed to actually become the other one which didn't exist yet; instead it is going to be transformed to be like the other one. Two coexisting bodies when Paul wrote and two coexisting bodies when the transformation is done at Christ's return from heaven. 

Try again. 

I realize nothing that I say will change your mind because... well... 'THE TIME STATEMENTS!!!!" Trust me, I understand; I was a full preterist for more than 15 years. This passage will set you free if you let it.